填空题 1 In the first place, Britain had the money necessary to finance the larger enterprises. England's supremacy on the seas had encouraged commerce, and Englishmen had been amassing wealth through there commerce and industry. The newly rich class in that country were not the aristocratic (贵族) group, but merchants and businessmen who were willing to devote themselves to industry and scientific agriculture. The wealth of France, on the other hand, was largely in the hands of the nobility, and they were not willing to do the necessary work to develop industry.

• A. Great Britain had undertaken very early the manufacturing of inexpensive and more practical products for which there would be ever -growing demand from the people.
• B. There was coal in northern France, too, but France was late in tapping such resources because really everyone depended directly or indirectly on farming for his living.
• C. On the other hard, France produced articles in the luxury class.
• D. This had not been the case in France, which was still chiefly an agricultural country with peasants bound to their masters in many ways so they could not easily move to the cities.
• E. So she was ready for methods that would make it possible to manufacture in large quantities.
• F. There were several reasons why the Industrial Revolution started in Great Britain ratherthan in France, the other great powers of the day.