单选题
Grammarians have for years condemned as ungrammatical the English phrase "between you and I," insisting that the correct phrasing is "between you and me," with the objective case after a preposition. Such condemnations, however, are obviously unfounded, because Shakespeare himself, in The Merchant of Venice, wrote, "All debts are cleared between you and I." Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?